Plat-Admn-202 — Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder

Full question text, answer options, and explanations for this practice set — a spoiler-free alternative is the interactive quiz above for scored, shuffled practice.

1. 1. What is the primary difference between Salesforce Classic and Lightning Experience?

   • A. Lightning Experience is a completely separate product requiring additional licensing
   • B. Lightning Experience provides a modern, component-based UI with enhanced productivity features such as Kanban, activity timeline, and the Lightning App Builder(correct)
   • C. Classic supports custom development; Lightning does not
   • D. Lightning Experience only works on mobile devices

   Explanation: Lightning Experience (LEX) is Salesforce's modern interface built on the Salesforce Lightning Design System (SLDS). It introduces component-based pages (Lightning App Builder), Kanban views, an activity timeline, Einstein features, and improved performance. It is included in existing Salesforce licenses — not a separate product. Classic is the older interface and does not receive new feature investment.

2. 2. In Salesforce, what is a 'sandbox' used for?

   • A. A read-only copy of production data used for reporting
   • B. An isolated environment for developing, testing, and training without affecting the production org(correct)
   • C. A temporary storage space for imported data before it goes to production
   • D. A child org that shares real-time data with the production org

   Explanation: Sandboxes are isolated Salesforce environments (copies of the production metadata, optionally with data) used for development, testing, UAT, and training. Changes made in a sandbox do not affect production. Changes are promoted to production via Change Sets or Salesforce DX. Sandbox types include Developer, Developer Pro, Partial Copy, and Full.

3. 3. A company needs to add a new tab to their Salesforce app that shows a custom object. The custom object already exists. What is the correct sequence?

   • A. Create Tab → Add to App in App Manager(correct)
   • B. Create Tab → Create App → Add Tab to App
   • C. Create App → Assign Tab → Create Object
   • D. Create Object → Tab is automatically created

   Explanation: In Salesforce, the sequence is: (1) Create a Custom Object Tab (Setup > Tabs > New) which defines the tab icon and label, then (2) Add the tab to the desired app via the App Manager (Setup > App Manager > Edit App > Navigation Items). Tabs are not automatically created when objects are created.

4. 4. Which of the following are types of Salesforce sandboxes? (Select THREE)

   • A. Developer Sandbox(correct)
   • B. Partial Copy Sandbox(correct)
   • C. Full Sandbox(correct)
   • D. Preview Sandbox

   Explanation: Salesforce provides four sandbox types: Developer (metadata only, smallest storage, free with most editions), Developer Pro (larger storage, metadata only), Partial Copy (metadata + sample data up to 5,000 records per object), and Full (complete copy of production data and metadata). 'Preview Sandbox' is not a sandbox type — it refers to sandboxes that preview the next Salesforce release.

5. 5. A developer wants to query all Account records modified in the last 7 days using SOQL. Which clause achieves this?

   • A. WHERE LastModifiedDate > LAST_N_DAYS:7(correct)
   • B. WHERE LastModifiedDate >= LAST_N_DAYS:7
   • C. WHERE LastModifiedDate = LAST_WEEK
   • D. WHERE ModifiedDate > TODAY - 7

   Explanation: SOQL date literals include LAST_N_DAYS:n (the last n days not including today), LAST_WEEK (the prior calendar week), and TODAY. The correct syntax for 'modified in the last 7 days' is WHERE LastModifiedDate > LAST_N_DAYS:7. 'ModifiedDate' is not a valid Salesforce field name — it's 'LastModifiedDate'. TODAY - 7 is not valid SOQL syntax.

6. 6. What governs how many records a user can see when they run a report or SOQL query?

   • A. Field-Level Security only
   • B. Sharing rules and the user's record access level (OWD + role hierarchy + sharing rules)(correct)
   • C. The user's profile license type
   • D. Governor limits on the number of SOQL results

   Explanation: Record visibility is governed by the sharing model: OWD (baseline access), role hierarchy (upward visibility), sharing rules (extend access to groups), manual sharing, and Apex-managed sharing. A user only sees records they have access to via this model. FLS controls field visibility. Governor limits control query performance, not record access.

7. 7. What is the maximum number of custom objects allowed in a Salesforce Enterprise Edition org?

   • A. 100
   • B. 200
   • C. 2,000(correct)
   • D. Unlimited

   Explanation: Salesforce Enterprise Edition allows up to 2,000 custom objects per org. Developer Edition allows 400. Unlimited Edition also supports 2,000+. The limits vary by edition — always verify in official Salesforce limits documentation. Understanding limits is important for app architecture decisions.

8. 8. A custom object needs to always have a parent record — the child cannot exist without the parent, and deleting the parent should delete all children. Which relationship type is appropriate?

   • A. Lookup relationship (required)
   • B. Master-Detail relationship(correct)
   • C. Hierarchical relationship
   • D. Many-to-Many relationship via Junction Object

   Explanation: Master-Detail relationships enforce: the detail record cannot exist without a master (required parent), cascade delete (deleting master deletes all detail records), and the detail inherits the master's owner and sharing settings. A required Lookup still allows the parent to be deleted without cascading to children. Hierarchical is for User-to-User relationships only.

9. 9. A company needs to model a many-to-many relationship between Students and Courses. What is the recommended Salesforce approach?

   • A. Create two Lookup fields on the Course object pointing to different Student records
   • B. Create a Junction Object (e.g., Enrollment) with two Master-Detail relationships — one to Student and one to Course(correct)
   • C. Use a multi-select picklist on the Student object to list Course names
   • D. Create separate Opportunity-like records for each Student-Course pairing

   Explanation: Many-to-many relationships in Salesforce are implemented via a Junction Object with two Master-Detail fields. The junction object (Enrollment) relates each Student to each Course. Both parents are required (master-detail), and the junction record is deleted when either parent is deleted. This pattern enables related lists on both parent objects and supports Roll-Up Summary fields.

10. 10. Which of the following field types are available when creating a custom field on a Salesforce custom object? (Select THREE)

    • A. Text (stores plain text up to 255 characters)(correct)
    • B. Currency (stores monetary values with automatic currency formatting)(correct)
    • C. Blob (stores binary large objects such as images)
    • D. Date (stores a calendar date without time)(correct)

    Explanation: Salesforce custom field types include Text, TextArea, Long TextArea, Currency, Number, Percent, Date, DateTime, Checkbox, Email, Phone, URL, Picklist, Multi-Select Picklist, Lookup, Formula, Roll-Up Summary, and others. 'Blob' is not an available custom field type — binary data (files) is handled via Salesforce Files or ContentVersion, not custom fields.

11. 11. An administrator creates a formula field on Opportunity that references the Account's BillingState field (Account.BillingState). What type of formula is this?

    • A. Standard formula field
    • B. Cross-object formula field(correct)
    • C. Roll-Up Summary field
    • D. Related field

    Explanation: A cross-object formula accesses fields on related records by traversing relationships (using dot notation: Account.BillingState). Cross-object formulas can span up to 10 relationships. They are read-only and recalculated when the referenced record changes. They are a type of formula field, but specifically called 'cross-object' when traversing a relationship.

12. 12. What is an External ID field in Salesforce used for?

    • A. A field that stores encrypted passwords for external system authentication
    • B. A field that uniquely identifies a record by a value from an external system, enabling upsert operations and relationship mapping during data imports(correct)
    • C. A field visible only to external portal users, not to internal users
    • D. A field that generates a UUID for integration with external APIs

    Explanation: External ID fields contain unique identifiers from external systems (e.g., SAP ID, NetSuite ID). They enable 'upsert' operations (insert if new, update if exists) during data import/integration without needing the Salesforce record ID. They also allow relationship mapping during bulk import (referencing parent records by external ID instead of Salesforce ID). Up to 3 External ID fields per object (25 with Unlimited).

13. 13. A Validation Rule uses the formula: ISBLANK(Phone) && RecordType.DeveloperName = 'Enterprise_Account'. What does this rule do?

    • A. Prevents saving if Phone is blank OR the record type is Enterprise_Account
    • B. Prevents saving if Phone is blank AND the record type is Enterprise_Account(correct)
    • C. Automatically populates the Phone field for Enterprise Accounts
    • D. Sends an alert when an Enterprise Account is created without a phone

    Explanation: A Validation Rule fires (blocks the save and shows an error) when its formula evaluates to TRUE. The formula ISBLANK(Phone) && RecordType.DeveloperName = 'Enterprise_Account' is TRUE only when BOTH conditions are met: Phone is blank AND the record type is Enterprise_Account. It uses logical AND (&&), not OR (||).

14. 14. When should an administrator use a Screen Flow instead of a Record-Triggered Flow?

    • A. When the automation should run automatically whenever a record is saved
    • B. When the user needs to input data through a guided multi-step UI before the automation runs(correct)
    • C. When a large batch of records needs to be processed nightly
    • D. When an API call is needed to an external system

    Explanation: Screen Flows display interactive UI screens to users — they can gather input, display information, and guide users through multi-step processes before executing automation logic. Record-Triggered Flows run automatically in the background when a record is saved. Scheduled Flows handle batch/nightly processing. API calls can be made from either flow type.

15. 15. What is the key difference between a 'Before Save' and 'After Save' record-triggered flow execution?

    • A. Before Save flows can update the triggering record's fields without a DML operation; After Save flows require a separate Update Records element(correct)
    • B. Before Save flows can send emails; After Save flows cannot
    • C. After Save flows run synchronously; Before Save flows run asynchronously
    • D. Before Save flows can create related records; After Save flows cannot

    Explanation: Before Save flows execute before the record is committed to the database. They can update the triggering record's own fields directly (without an 'Update Records' DML element) using the 'Update Triggering Record' action — which is a free operation that doesn't count as a DML statement. After Save flows run after the commit and must use 'Update Records' (a DML operation) to modify any records including the trigger record.

16. 16. A company needs to send a follow-up email to Leads 3 days after they are created if they haven't been converted. Which Flow type handles this time-based automation?

    • A. Screen Flow triggered manually by a user
    • B. Record-Triggered Flow with a Scheduled Path (3 days after LeadSource is set)(correct)
    • C. Platform Event-Triggered Flow
    • D. Autolaunched Flow called from an Apex scheduled job

    Explanation: Record-Triggered Flows support Scheduled Paths — time-based branches that execute a specified number of hours, days, or months after a trigger condition. A Scheduled Path set to '3 Days After Lead.CreatedDate' (with a condition check that IsConverted = false) handles this pattern declaratively without Apex. Platform Event Flows react to events, not time.

17. 17. Which of the following actions can a Record-Triggered Flow perform? (Select THREE)

    • A. Create a new related record (e.g., create a Task when an Opportunity is closed)(correct)
    • B. Send an email notification via an Email Alert(correct)
    • C. Display a screen to the user asking for additional input
    • D. Call an Apex method via an Invocable Action(correct)

    Explanation: Record-Triggered Flows can: create/update/delete records (DML), send emails via email alerts or the Send Email action, call Apex Invocable methods, call external systems via HTTP callouts (via invocable Apex), and more. Screen flows display UI screens — Record-Triggered Flows run in the background without user interaction and cannot show screens.

18. 18. An administrator needs to enforce that Opportunity Close Date cannot be in the past when a user sets the Stage to 'Closed Won'. Which tool enforces this without code?

    • A. Validation Rule: IF(ISPICKVAL(StageName, 'Closed Won'), CloseDate < TODAY(), FALSE)(correct)
    • B. Required field setting on the CloseDate field
    • C. Flow that checks the date and creates a log record
    • D. Workflow Rule with a field update to reset the close date

    Explanation: The Validation Rule formula IF(ISPICKVAL(StageName, 'Closed Won'), CloseDate < TODAY(), FALSE) evaluates to TRUE (blocks save) only when Stage is 'Closed Won' AND CloseDate is before today. When Stage is not 'Closed Won', the formula returns FALSE (no block). The IF() provides conditional validation — a key pattern for conditional field requirements.

19. 19. What is a 'Flow Fault Path' and when is it triggered?

    • A. A separate Flow that runs when the main Flow is deleted
    • B. An optional error handling path in a Flow that catches exceptions (e.g., DML failures, HTTP errors) and allows graceful error handling instead of a runtime error page(correct)
    • C. A path that runs when a user cancels a Screen Flow
    • D. An autogenerated Flow log written when a Flow encounters a governor limit

    Explanation: Flow Fault Paths (or Fault Connectors) are error handling branches on Flow elements that can fail at runtime (e.g., Create/Update Records, HTTP callouts). When the element fails, flow execution follows the fault path instead of showing the default system error. The fault path can log the error, send an alert, or present a user-friendly message on screen flows.

20. 20. What is the Lightning App Builder used for?

    • A. Writing Apex code for Lightning Web Components
    • B. Visually assembling record pages, app pages, and home pages using drag-and-drop Lightning components(correct)
    • C. Designing email templates with drag-and-drop content blocks
    • D. Creating SOQL queries visually and displaying results as tables

    Explanation: The Lightning App Builder (LAB) is a declarative, point-and-click tool for composing Lightning pages from reusable components. Administrators can create Record Pages (object-specific layouts with related lists, charts, components), App Pages (tabs in an app), and Home Pages. Components are dragged, dropped, and configured without code. Dynamic visibility rules can show/hide components based on field values.

21. 21. An administrator wants a 'Notes' section on the Account record page to only be visible when the Account Type is 'Customer'. Which Lightning App Builder feature enables this?

    • A. Dynamic Forms — Component Visibility Rules(correct)
    • B. Record Types — assign a different page layout for Customer accounts
    • C. Validation Rules — hide the section if Type is not Customer
    • D. Formula field that controls a field's visibility based on Type

    Explanation: Dynamic Forms allows administrators to add visibility rules to individual components (fields, sections) on Lightning record pages via the Lightning App Builder. A visibility rule can evaluate field values (e.g., {!Record.Type} = 'Customer') and show/hide the Notes section accordingly. Validation Rules enforce data integrity, not UI visibility. Record Types require page layout assignments — not per-field visibility conditions.

22. 22. What is a Lightning Web Component (LWC)?

    • A. A legacy Visualforce page component designed for the Classic interface
    • B. A modern, standards-based UI component built with HTML, CSS, and JavaScript that runs natively in Lightning Experience(correct)
    • C. A drag-and-drop block available in the Lightning App Builder configuration panel
    • D. A Salesforce Flow component type used for screen flow steps

    Explanation: Lightning Web Components (LWC) are built using modern web standards (HTML, CSS, JavaScript — Web Components API). They run natively in the browser for improved performance and are the recommended framework for custom UI development in Lightning Experience. Administrators use the Lightning App Builder to add them to pages. They replace the older Aura component framework.

23. 23. Which of the following can be added to a Lightning Record Page via the Lightning App Builder? (Select TWO)

    • A. Related list components showing child records(correct)
    • B. Custom Lightning Web Components deployed by a developer(correct)
    • C. Visualforce pages embedded in an iFrame
    • D. External website content via a URL iframe tab

    Explanation: Lightning Record Pages support: standard components (Related Lists, Highlights Panel, Chatter Feed, Path), custom LWC components (exposed with targets in their metadata), and AppExchange components. Visualforce pages can be embedded via the 'Visualforce' component on a page layout or app page, but not directly on a Lightning Record Page as-is. External iFrames require a custom LWC.

24. 24. What is a Change Set in Salesforce and what is its primary use?

    • A. A set of Apex test results generated after a deployment
    • B. A container of metadata components (objects, fields, flows, etc.) deployed from one Salesforce org to another via the UI(correct)
    • C. A list of data records to be migrated between orgs using Data Loader
    • D. A version control snapshot of all org changes committed to Git

    Explanation: Change Sets are metadata containers used to deploy customizations (non-data) from sandbox to production (Outbound Change Sets) or between connected orgs (Inbound Change Sets). They are an admin-friendly, UI-based deployment method. They require a Deployment Connection between the two orgs. Salesforce DX with the CLI and package-based development is the alternative for teams using version control.

25. 25. When deploying Apex code to a production org, what Salesforce requirement must be met?

    • A. At least 1% of Apex code must be covered by unit tests with each test passing
    • B. At least 75% of all Apex code in the org must be covered by unit tests, and all tests must pass(correct)
    • C. Apex code can be deployed without test coverage as long as it was tested in a sandbox
    • D. At least 50% of Apex code must be covered, with critical methods requiring 100%

    Explanation: Salesforce requires at least 75% code coverage across all Apex in the org to deploy to production. All Apex tests in the org must pass. Individual methods must have their logic tested (though 75% is the aggregate org-wide threshold). This requirement applies to both Change Set and DX deployments. Triggers must have at least 1% coverage (but the 75% overall still applies).